COMPLETE MCCQE EXAM DUMPS & MCCQE EXAMS

Complete MCCQE Exam Dumps & MCCQE Exams

Complete MCCQE Exam Dumps & MCCQE Exams

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Tags: Complete MCCQE Exam Dumps, MCCQE Exams, Certificate MCCQE Exam, Online MCCQE Lab Simulation, MCCQE Valid Exam Testking

To ensure your success, you require Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Questions that provide comprehensive and relevant information for a fully prepared approach to the MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam. While numerous online guides offer MCCQE Exam Questions, caution is necessary to avoid falling victim to online scams. Trust 2Pass4sure for the ultimate preparation experience with their MCCQE Part 1 Exam (MCCQE) exam questions.

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q28-Q33):

NEW QUESTION # 28
A 70-year-old man presents with severe, postprandial, mid-abdominal pain which has become more severe over the past 6 to 9 months. It is associated with nausea but has not caused him to vomit or changed his bowel habits. He has lost 14 kg over the last 6 months. Abdominal and rectal examination is normal. Upper gastrointestinal series is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Carcinoma of colon
  • B. Cholelithiasis
  • C. Peptic ulcer disease
  • D. Mesenteric adenitis
  • E. Mesenteric ischemia

Answer: E

Explanation:
Chronic mesenteric ischemia (also known as "intestinal angina") presents as postprandial abdominal pain, leading to food avoidance and significant weight loss. GI exams may be normal. Imaging (e.g., angiography or CT angio) confirms the diagnosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Chronic Mesenteric Ischemia":
"Classic triad: postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and food aversion. Physical exam and GI series may be normal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-1: Abdominal Pain):
"Candidates must suspect mesenteric ischemia in older adults with risk factors and postprandial pain leading to weight loss." PUD (A) usually causes epigastric pain relieved by food. Cholelithiasis (B) causes RUQ pain. Colon cancer (D) presents with altered bowel habits or bleeding. Mesenteric adenitis (C) occurs in younger patients, often with infection.


NEW QUESTION # 29
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-hour history of pelvic pain associated with no other symptoms. The first day of her last menstrual period was 14 days ago. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
108/72 mm Hg
Heart rate
110/min
Temperature
37 °C
Abdominal examination reveals rebound tenderness and guarding. Pelvic examination reveals exquisite left adnexal tenderness. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Adenomyosis
  • B. Appendicitis
  • C. Endometriosis
  • D. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
  • E. Diverticulitis

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Mid-cycle acute onset pelvic pain with localized adnexal tenderness in a reproductive-age woman suggests a hemorrhagic ovarian cyst, particularly a ruptured one. The hemodynamic parameters are stable, but elevated HR supports acute pain and possible blood loss.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology / Acute Pelvic Pain:
"Hemorrhagic ovarian cysts present with sudden unilateral pelvic pain, mid-cycle, with guarding and rebound tenderness. Ultrasound is key." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-4: Acute Pelvic Pain):
"Candidates must recognize common causes of acute pelvic pain, including ovarian cysts." Diverticulitis (A) is rare in young women and usually LLQ. Appendicitis (B) is more likely RLQ.
Adenomyosis (C) and endometriosis (D) cause chronic cyclical pain, not acute tenderness.
-


NEW QUESTION # 30
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0, presents to the labor and delivery ward at 32 weeks' gestation with a 24-hour history of worsening frontal headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. Vitals:
* BP: 121/78 mm Hg
* HR: 90 bpm
* Temp: 38°C
Neuro exam reveals a 2-beat ankle clonus. Tone and power are otherwise normal. No localizing signs or papilledema. Abdomen is soft, fetus is cephalic.
Which one of the following is the best next investigation?

  • A. Amniocentesis with culture
  • B. Fetal ultrasonography
  • C. Computed tomography of the head
  • D. Urine protein to creatinine ratio
  • E. Lumbar puncture

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient is pregnant and febrile with a new headache, photophobia, and clonus - all features concerning for preeclampsia with neurologic involvement. Clonus is a key finding suggestive of central nervous system irritability. Urine protein/creatinine ratio helps confirm the diagnosis of preeclampsia.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy:
"Headache, clonus, and visual disturbances are concerning for severe preeclampsia. A urine protein/creatinine ratio or 24-hour urine collection confirms diagnosis." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Hypertension in Pregnancy:
"Candidates must recognize signs of preeclampsia and assess with appropriate biochemical testing." CT (A) or LP (B) are not indicated unless focal neurologic signs or seizures are present. Fetal imaging and amniocentesis (C, D) do not address maternal symptoms.


NEW QUESTION # 31
A 31-year-old man presents with nocturnal non-exertional chest pain. During an exercise stress test, he does not experience chest pain, and there are no significant ST segment changes on the electrocardiogram. He achieves 17 metabolic equivalent of task (MET), a blood pressure of 190/96 mm Hg (resting blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg), and a maximum heart rate of 162/min (85% of age-predicted maximum). Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

  • A. Prescribe acetylsalicylic acid and metoprolol
  • B. Advise against vigorous exercise
  • C. Offer reassurance
  • D. Schedule cardiac catheterization
  • E. Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide

Answer: E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology:
"An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment." Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.
-


NEW QUESTION # 32
A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 6-month history of unusual behavior. He believes that he has been specially chosen to found a new religion. He says he has seen visions of angels in his bedroom. He appears disheveled and malodorous. On further inspection, you note that he drinks 2 liters daily.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

  • A. Valproic acid
  • B. Cognitive behavior therapy
  • C. Electroconvulsive therapy
  • D. Risperidone
  • E. Carbamazepine

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and disorganized appearance. The first-line treatment is antipsychotic medication-risperidone is a well-tolerated option among second-generation antipsychotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Schizophrenia":
"Schizophrenia is treated with second-generation antipsychotics such as risperidone. These reduce positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Psychotic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize and manage schizophrenia with antipsychotics and distinguish from other mood or personality disorders." CBT (E) is supportive but not first-line. ECT (A) is used for severe depression or catatonia. Valproic acid (C) and carbamazepine (D) are mood stabilizers, not first-line for schizophrenia.
-


NEW QUESTION # 33
......

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